UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 1 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 1 SET-A QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION




Q:: 1. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of
 teaching :

List of factors :

(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.

(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.

(c) Communication skill of the teacher.

(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.

(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.

(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.

Codes :

(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (c), (d) and (f)

(3) (b), (d) and (e) (4) (a), (c) and (f)

Answer::(4)

Q::2 The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

(1) attracting students’ attention in the class room.

(2) minimising indiscipline problems in the classroom.

(3) optimising learning outcomes of students.

(4) effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
Answer::(3)

Q:: 3 Assertion (A) :

         The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative
         thinking abilities among students.
 

         Reason (R) :

         These abilities ensure job placements.

Choose the correct answer from the following code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer::(2)

Q:: 4 Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system.

Choose the correct code :

Set – I                                                                    Set – II

a. Formative evaluation                                         i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive
                                                                                aspects with regularity

b. Summative evaluation                                       ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a
                                                                                 group and certain yardsticks

c. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation        iii. Grading the final learning outcomes

d. Norm and criterion referenced tests                  iv. Quizzes and discussions

Codes :

      a b c d

(1) iv iii i ii

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iii iv ii i

(4) i iii iv ii

Answer::(1)

Q:: 5 A researcher intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study ?

(1) Historical method                            (2) Descriptive survey method

(3) Experimental method                      (4) Ex-post-facto method

Answer::(4)

Q::6 Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research ?

(1) Developing a research design

(2) Formulating a research question

(3) Deciding about the data analysis procedure

(4) Formulating a research hypothesis

Answer::(2)

Q:: 7 The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(1) preparation of a research paper/article

(2) writing of seminar presentation

(3) a research dissertation

(4) presenting a workshop / conference paper

Answer::(3)

Q:: 8 In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical ?

(1) Data collection with standardised research tools.

(2) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.

(3) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.

(4) Data gathering to take place with top-down systematic evidences.

Answer::(3)

Q:: 9 From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for
‘research ethics’ :

(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.

(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.

(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.

(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.

(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.

(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of
preliminary studies.

Codes :

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)                                      (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (ii), (iv) and (vi)                                     (4) (i), (iii) and (v)

Answer::(3)

Q:: 10 In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in completing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to
find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the
null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted
in respect of the research hypothesis ?

(1) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.

(2) The research hypothesis will be accepted.

(3) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.

(4) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.

Answer::(2)

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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION


Q:: 61 The region of feasible solution of a linear programming problem has a _____ property in
geometry, provided the feasible solution of the problem exists.

(1) concavity                                          (2) convexity

(3) quadratic                                          (4) polyhedron

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 62 Consider the following statements :

(a) Revised simplex method requires lesser computations than the simplex method.

(b) Revised simplex method automatically generates the inverse of the current basis
matrix.

(c) Less number of entries are needed in each table of revised simplex method than
usual simplex method.

Which of these statements are correct ?

(1) (a) and (b) only                                   (2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b) and (c) only                                   (4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer:: (4)

63. The following transportation problem :
                      A         B          C              Supply
  I                  50        30         220               1
 II                 90        45         170               3
III                250      200        50                 4
Demand        4           2           2

has a solution
         A     B      C
I       1
II     3       0
III            2       2
The above solution of a given transportation problem is

(1) infeasible solution                                       (2) optimum solution

(3) non-optimum solution                                (4) unbounded solution

Answer:: (2)

64. Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as :

Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe x to elements of
universe z using max-min composition is given by

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 65 Compute the value of adding the following two fuzzy integers :

A = {(0.3, 1), (0.6, 2), (1, 3), (0.7, 4), (0.2, 5)}

B = {(0.5, 11), (1, 12), (0.5, 13)}

Where fuzzy addition is defined as

μA+B (z) = max
x + y = z (min (μA(x), μB(x)))
Then, f (A + B) is equal to

(1) {(0.5, 12), (0.6, 13), (1, 14), (0.7, 15), (0.7, 16), (1, 17), (1, 18)}

(2) {(0.5, 12), (0.6, 13), (1, 14), (1, 15), (1, 16), (1, 17), (1, 18)}

(3) {(0.3, 12), (0.5, 13), (0.5, 14), (1, 15), (0.7, 16), (0.5, 17), (0.2, 18)}

(4) {(0.3, 12), (0.5, 13), (0.6, 14), (1, 15), (0.7, 16), (0.5, 17), (0.2, 18)}

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 66 A perceptron has input weights W1 = – 3.9 and W2 = 1.1 with threshold value T = 0.3.
What output does it give for the input x1 = 1.3 and x2 = 2.2 ?

(1) – 2.65                                             (2) – 2.30

(3) 0                                                    (4) 1

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 67 What is the function of following UNIX command ?
           
           WC – l < a > b &

(1) It runs the word count program to count the number of lines in its input, a, writing
the result to b, as a foreground process.

(2) It runs the word count program to count the number of lines in its input, a, writing
the result to b, but does it in the background.

(3) It counts the errors during the execution of a process, a, and puts the result in
process b.

(4) It copies the ‘l’ numbers of lines of program from file, a, and stores in file b.

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 68 Which of the following statement is not correct with reference to cron daemon in UNIX O.S. ?

(1) The cron daemon is the standard tool for running commands on a pre-determined
schedule.

(2) It starts when the system boots and runs as long as the system is up.

(3) Cron reads configuration files that contain list of command lines and the times at
which they invoked.

(4) Crontab for individual users are not stored.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 69 In Unix, files can be protected by assigning each one a 9-bit mode called rights bits. Now, consider the following two statements:

I. A mode of 641 (octal) means that the owner can read and write the file, other
members of the owner’s group can read it, and users can execute only.

II. A mode of 100 (octal) allows the owner to execute the file, but prohibits all other
access.

Which of the following options is correct with reference to above statements ?

(1) Only I is correct. (2) Only II is correct.

(3) Both I and II are correct. (4) Both I and II are incorrect.

Answer:: (3)

70. Consider the statement,

“Either – 2 ≤ x ≤ – 1 or 1 ≤ x ≤2”.

The negation of this statement is

(1) x < – 2 or 2 < x or – 1 < x < 1                   (2) x < – 2 or 2 < x

(3) – 1 < x < 1                                               (4) x ≤ – 2 or 2 < x or – 1 < x < 1

Answer:: (1)

71. Which of the following is characteristic of an MIS ?

(1) Provides guidance in identifying problems, finding and evaluating alternative
solutions, and selecting or comparing alternatives.

(2) Draws on diverse yet predictable data resources to aggregate and summarize data.

(3) High volume, data capture focus.

(4) Has as its goal the efficiency of data movement and processing and interfacing
different TPS.

Answer:: (2)

72. How does randomized hill-climbing choose the next move each time ?

(1) It generates a random move from the moveset, and accepts this move.

(2) It generates a random move from the whole state space, and accepts this move.

(3) It generates a random move from the moveset, and accepts this move only if this
     move improves the evaluation function.

(4) It generates a random move from the whole state space, and accepts this move only
     if this move improves the evaluation function.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 73 Consider the following game tree in which root is a maximizing node and children are
visited left to right. What nodes will be pruned by the alpha-beta pruning ?

(1) I                                         (2) HI
(3) CHI                                    (4) GHI

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 74 Consider a 3-puzzle where, like in the usual 8-puzzle game, a tile can only move to an adjacent empty space. Given the initial state

 which of the following state cannot be reached ?

Answer:: (3)


Q:: 75 A software program that infers and manipulates existing knowledge in order to generate
new knowledge is known as :

(1) Data dictionary                                 (2) Reference mechanism

(3) Inference engine                                (4) Control strategy


Answer:: (3)

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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION


Q:: 51 Which of the following information about the UNIX file system is not correct ?

(1) Super block contains the number of i-nodes, the number of disk blocks, and the start
of the list of free disk blocks.

(2) An i-node contains accounting information as well as enough information to locate
all the disk blocks that holds the file’s data.

(3) Each i-node is 256-bytes long.

(4) All the files and directories are stored in data blocks.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 52 Which of the following option with reference to UNIX operating system is not correct ?

(1) INT signal is sent by the terminal driver when one types <Control-C> and it is a
request to terminate the current operation.

(2) TERM is a request to terminate execution completely. The receiving process will
clean up its state and exit.

(3) QUIT is similar to TERM, except that it defaults to producing a core dump if not
caught.

(4) KILL is a blockable signal.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 53 A multicomputer with 256 CPUs is organized as 16 × 16 grid. What is the worst case
delay (in hops) that a message might have to take ?

(1) 16                                     (2) 15
(3) 32                                     (4) 30

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 54 Suppose that the time to do a null remote procedure call (RPC) (i.e. 0 data bytes) is
1.0 msec, with an additional 1.5 msec for every 1K of data. How long does it take to read
32 K from the file server as 32 1K RPCs ?

(1) 49 msec                             (2) 80 msec

(3) 48 msec                             (4) 100 msec

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 55 Let L be the language generated by regular expression 0*10* and accepted by the
deterministic finite automata M. Consider the relation RM defined by M. As all states are
reachable from the start state, RM has _____ equivalence classes.

(1) 2                                   (2) 4

(3) 5                                   (4) 6

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 56 Let L = {0n1n|n ≥ 0} be a context free language.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) ~L is context free and Lk is not context free for any k ≥ 1.

(2) ~L is not context free and Lk is context free for any k ≥ 1.

(3) Both ~L and Lk is for any k ≥ 1 are context free.

(4) Both ~L and Lk is for any k ≥ 1 are not context free.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 57 Given a Turing Machine

M = ({q0, q1, q2, q3}, {a, b}, {a, b, B}, δ, B, {q3})

Where δ is a transition function defined as

δ(q0, a) = (q1, a, R)
δ(q1, b) = (q2, b, R)
δ(q2, a) = (q2, a, R)
δ(q2, b) = (q3, b, R)

The language L(M) accepted by the Turing Machine is given as :

(1) aa*b                                      (2) abab

(3) aba*b                                    (4) aba*

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 58 Consider a discrete memoryless channel and assume that H(x) is the amount of
information per symbol at the input of the channel; H(y) is the amount of information per
symbol at the output of the channel; H(x|y) is the amount of uncertainty remaining on x
knowing y; and I (x; y) is the information transmission.
Which of the following does not define the channel capacity of a discrete memoryless
channel ?

(1) max I (x; y)                                (2) max [H(y) – H(y|x)]
     p(x)                                                  p(x)

(3) max [H(x) – H(x|y)]                    (4) max H(x|y)
     p(x)                                                  p(x)

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 59 Consider a source with symbols A, B, C, D with probabilities 1/2, 1/4, 1/8,           1/8 respectively. What is the average number of bits per symbol for the Huffman code generated from above information ?

(1) 2 bits per symbol                             (2) 1.75 bits per symbol

(3) 1.50 bits per symbol                        (4) 1.25 bits per symbol

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 60 Which of the following is used for the boundary representation of an image object ?

(1) Quad Tree                                           (2) Projections

(3) Run length coding                               (4) Chain codes

Answer:: (4)

                     
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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION


Q:: 41 Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) HTML is not screen precise formatting language.

(2) HTML does not specify a logic.

(3) DHTML is used for developing highly interactive web pages.

(4) HTML is a programming language.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 42 When one object reference variable is assigned to another object reference variable then

(1) a copy of the object is created.

(2) a copy of the reference is created.

(3) a copy of the reference is not created.

(4) it is illegal to assign one object reference variable to another object reference
variable.

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 43 A server crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is 30 days. When this happens, it takes 12 hours to reboot it, that is, the Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is 12 hours. The availability of server with these reliability data
values is approximately :

(1) 96.3%                                              (2) 97.3%

(3) 98.3%                                              (4) 99.3%

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 44 Match the software maintenance activities in List – I to its meaning in List – II.
    List – I                                      List – II

I. Corrective                             (a) Concerned with performing activities to reduce the software
                                                     complexity thereby improving program understandability
                                                     and increasing software maintainability.

II. Adaptive                             (b) Concerned with fixing errors that are observed when the
                                                     Software is in use.

III. Perfective                          (c) Concerned with the change in the software that takes place
                                                     to make the software adaptable to new environment (both
                                                     hardware and software).

IV. Preventive                          (d) Concerned with the change in the software that takes place to
                                                     make the software adaptable to changing user requirements.


Codes :
      I    II  III IV

(1) (b) (d) (c) (a)

(2) (b) (c) (d) (a)

(3) (c) (b) (d) (a)

(4) (a) (d) (b) (c)

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 45 Match each application/software design concept in List – I to its definition in List – II.
    List – I                                           List – II

I. Coupling                                    (a) Easy to visually inspect the design of the software and
                                                           understand its purpose.

II. Cohesion                                  (b) Easy to add functionality to a software without having to
                                                           redesign it.

III. Scalable                                  (c) Focus of a code upon a single goal.

IV. Readable                                 (d) Reliance of a code module upon other code modules.

Codes :

       I   II  III IV

(1) (b) (a) (d) (c)

(2) (c) (d) (a) (b)

(3) (d) (c) (b) (a)

(4) (d) (a) (c) (b)

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 46 Software safety is quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that

(1) affect the reliability of a software component.

(2) may cause an entire system to fail.

(3) may result from user input errors.

(4) prevent profitable marketing of the final product.

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 47 Which of the following sets represent five stages defined by Capability Maturity Model
          (CMM) in increasing order of maturity ?

(1) Initial, Defined, Repeatable, Managed, Optimized.

(2) Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Optimized.

(3) Initial, Defined, Managed, Repeatable, Optimized.

(4) Initial, Repeatable, Managed, Defined, Optimized.

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 48 The number of function points of a proposed system is calculated as 500. Suppose that the system is planned to be developed in Java and the LOC/FP ratio of Java is 50. Estimate
the effort (E) required to complete the project using the effort formula of basic COCOMO
given below :

E = a(KLOC)b
Assume that the values of a and b are 2.5 and 1.0 respectively.

(1) 25 person months                                              (2) 75 person months

(3) 62.5 person months                                           (4) 72.5 person months

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 49 In UNIX, processes that have finished execution but have not yet had their status collected are known as _________.

(1) Sleeping processes                                       (2) Stopped processes

(3) Zombie processes                                        (4) Orphan processes

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 50 In Unix operating system, when a process creates a new process using the fork () system
call, which of the following state is shared between the parent process and child process ?

(1) Heap                                                         (2) Stack

(3) Shared memory segments                          (4) Both Heap and Stack

Answer:: (3)


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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION



Q:: 31 The number of different binary trees with 6 nodes is ______.

(1) 6                                                  (2) 42

(3) 132                                              (4) 256

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 32 Let A[1…n] be an array of n distinct numbers. If i < j and A[i] > A[j], then the pair (i, j) is
called an inversion of A. What is the expected number of inversions in any permutation on
n elements ?

(1) θ(n)                                          (2) θ(lgn)

(3) θ(nlgn)                                     (4) θ(n²)

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 33 Which one of the following array represents a binary max-heap ?

(1) [26, 13, 17, 14, 11, 9, 15]                           (2) [26, 15, 14, 17, 11, 9, 13]

(3) [26, 15, 17, 14, 11, 9, 13]                           (4) [26, 15, 13, 14, 11, 9, 17]

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 34 Match the following :

(a) Huffman codes                                                   (i) O(n2)

(b) Optimal polygon triangulation                          (ii) θ(n3)

(c) Activity selection problem                                 (iii) O(nlgn)

(d) Quicksort                                                         (iv) θ(n)

Codes :

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 35 Suppose that we have numbers between 1 and 1,000 in a binary search tree and want to
search for the number 364. Which of the following sequences could not be the sequence of
nodes examined ?

(1) 925, 221, 912, 245, 899, 259, 363, 364

(2) 3, 400, 388, 220, 267, 383, 382, 279, 364

(3) 926, 203, 912, 241, 913, 246, 364

(4) 3, 253, 402, 399, 331, 345, 398, 364

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 36 A triangulation of a polygon is a set of T chords that divide the polygon into disjoint
triangles. Every triangulation of n-vertex convex polygon has _____ chords and divides
the polygon into _____ triangles.

(1) n – 2, n – 1                                     (2) n – 3, n – 2

(3) n – 1, n                                           (4) n – 2, n – 2

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 37 Implicit return type of a class constructor is :

(1) not of class type itself                                (2) class type itself

(3) a destructor of class type                           (4) a destructor not of class type

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 38 It is possible to define a class within a class termed as nested class. There are _____ types of nested classes.

(1) 2                                                       (2) 3

(3) 4                                                       (4) 5

Answer:: (1)

Q:: 39 Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Aggregation is a strong type of association between two classes with full ownership.

(2) Aggregation is a strong type of association between two classes with partial
ownership.

(3) Aggregation is a weak type of association between two classes with partial
ownership.

(4) Aggregation is a weak type of association between two classes with full ownership.

Answer:: (3)

40. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Every class containing abstract method must not be declared abstract.

(2) Abstract class cannot be directly initiated with ‘new’ operator.

(3) Abstract class cannot be initiated.

(4) Abstract class contains definition of implementation.

Answer:: (2&3)


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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

Q:: 21 Which of the following is false regarding the evaluation of computer programming
languages ?

(1) Application oriented features                              (2) Efficiency and Readability

(3) Software development                                         (4) Hardware maintenance cost

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 22 The symmetric difference of two sets S1 and S2 is defined as

S1 @ S2 = {x|x ∈ S1 or x ∈ S2, but x is not in both S1 and S2}

The nor of two languages is defined as

nor (L1, L2) = {w|w ∈| L1 and w ∈| L2}.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) The family of regular languages is closed under symmetric difference but not closed under nor.

(2) The family of regular languages is closed under nor but not closed under symmetric difference.

(3) The family of regular languages are closed under both symmetric difference and nor.

(4) The family of regular languages are not closed under both symmetric difference and nor.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 23 The regular expression for the complement of the language L = {anbm|n ≥ 4, m ≤ 3} is :

(1) (λ + a + aa + aaa) b* + a* bbbb* + (a + b)* ba(a + b)*

(2) (λ + a + aa + aaa) b* + a* bbbbb* + (a + b)* ab(a + b)*

(3) (λ + a + aa + aaa) + a* bbbbb* + (a + b)* ab(a + b)*

(4) (λ + a + aa + aaa)b* + a* bbbbb* + (a + b)* ba(a + b)*

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 24 Consider the following two languages :

L1 = {0i1j| gcd (i, j) = 1}

L2 is any subset of 0*.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) L1 is regular and L*2 is not regular

(2) L1 is not regular and L*2 is regular

(3) Both L1 and L*2 are regular languages

(4) Both L1 and L*2 are not regular languages

Answer:: (2)

25. If link transmits 4000 frames per second and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of
circuit of this TDM is ______.

(1) 64 Kbps                   (2) 32 MbpS

(3) 32 Kbps                   (4) 64 MbpS

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 26 Given the following statements :

(A) Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique that can be applied when the
bandwidth of a link is greater than combined bandwidth of signals to be transmitted.

(B) Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) is an analog multiplexing Technique to
combine optical signals.

(C) WDM is a Digital Multiplexing Technique.

(D) TDM is a Digital Multiplexing Technique.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) are true.

(2) (A), (B), (C) and (D) are false.

(3) (A), (B) and (D) are false; (C) is true.

(4) (A), (B) and (D) are True; (C) is false.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 27 A pure ALOHA Network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with 200 Kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations put together) produces 500 frames per second, then
the throughput of the system is ______.
(1) 0.384                                            (2) 0.184
(3) 0.286                                            (4) 0.586

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 28 Match the following :

(a) Line coding                      (i) A technique to change analog signal to digital data.

(b) Block coding                    (ii) Provides synchronization without increasing number of bits.

(c) Scrambling                      (iii) Process of converting digital data to digital signal.

(d) Pulse code modulation     (iv) Provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherits error detection.

Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 29 Assume that we need to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per minute. A
page is an average of 24 lines with 80 characters in each line and each character requires
8 bits. Then the required bit rate of the channel is _____.
(1) 1.636 Kbps                                  (2) 1.636 Mbps

(3) 3.272 Mbps                                 (4) 3.272 Kbps

Answer:: Marks to All

Q:: 30 Encrypt the plain text Message “EXTRANET” using Transposition cipher technique with the following key :
                                      3 5 2 1 4 (Cipher text)
                                      1 2 3 4 5 (Plain text)

Using ‘Z’ as bogus character.

(1) TAXERTZENZ                          (2) EXTRANETZZ

(3) EZXZTRZANZET                    (4) EXTZRANZETZ

Answer:: (1)

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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

Q:: 11 Consider the following ORACLE relations :

R (A, B, C) = {<1, 2, 3>, <1, 2, 0>, <1, 3, 1>, <6, 2, 3>, <1, 4, 2>, <3, 1, 4> }

S (B, C, D) = {<2, 3, 7>, <1, 4, 5>, <1, 2, 3>, <2, 3, 4>, <3, 1, 4>}.

Consider the following two SQL queries SQ1 and SQ2 :

SQ1 : SELECT R⋅B, AVG (S⋅B)
FROM R, S
WHERE R⋅A = S⋅C AND S⋅D < 7
GROUP BY R⋅B;

SQ2 : SELECT DISTINCT S⋅B, MIN (S⋅C)
FROM S
GROUP BY S⋅B
HAVING COUNT (DISTINCT S⋅D) > 1;

If M is the number of tuples returned by SQ1 and N is the number of tuples returned by
SQ2 then

(1) M = 4, N = 2                                       (2) M = 5, N = 3

(3) M = 2, N = 2                                       (4) M = 3, N = 3

Answer:: (1)

Q:: 12 Semi-join strategies are techniques for query processing in distributed database system.

Which of the following is a semi-join technique ?

(1) Only the joining attributes are sent from one site to another and then all of the rows
are returned.

(2) All of the attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows
are returned.

(3) Only the joining attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the
required rows are returned.

(4) All of the attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows
are returned.

Answer:: (3)


Q:: 13 Consider the Breshenham’s circle generation algorithm for plotting a circle with centre (0,0) and radius ‘r’ units in first quadrant. If the current point is (xi, yi) and decision
parameter is pi then what will be the next point (xi + 1, yi + 1) and updated decision parameter pi + 1 for pi ≥ 0 ?

(1) xi + 1 = xi + 1
     yi + 1 = yi 
     pi + 1 = pi + 4xi + 6 

(2) xi + 1 = xi + 1
     yi + 1 = yi – 1 
     pi + 1 = pi + 4 (xi – yi) + 10

(3) xi + 1 = xi
     yi + 1 = yi – 1
     pi + 1 = pi + 4 (xi – yi) + 6 

(4) xi + 1 = xi – 1
     yi + 1 = yi
     pi + 1 = pi + 4xi + 10

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 14 A point P(5, 1) is rotated by 90° about a pivot point (2, 2). What is the coordinate of new
transformed point P′ ?

(1) (3, 5)                                                   (2) (5, 3)
(3) (2, 4)                                                   (4) (1, 5)

Answer:: (1)

Q:: 15 Let R be the rectangular window against which the lines are to be clipped using 2D Sutherland-Cohen line clipping algorithm. The rectangular window has lower left-hand corner at (– 5, 1) and upper right-hand corner at (3, 7). Consider the following three lines for clipping with the given end point co-ordinates :

Line AB : A (– 6, 2) and B (–1, 8)

Line CD : C (– 1, 5) and D (4, 8)

Line EF : E (–2, 3) and F (1, 2)

Which of the following line(s) is/are candidate for clipping ?

(1) AB                                              (2) CD

(3) EF                                              (4) AB and CD

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 16 In perspective projection, if a line segment joining a point which lies in front of the viewer to a point in back of the viewer is projected to a broken line of infinite extent. This is known as _______.

(1) View confusion                                 (2) Vanishing point

(3) Topological distortion                       (4) Perspective foreshortening

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 17 Let us consider that the original point is (x, y) and new transformed point is (x′, y′).
Further, Shx and Shy are shearing factors in x and y directions. If we perform the y-direction shear relative to x = xref then the transformed point is given by _______.

(1) x′ = x + Shx ⋅ (y – yref)  
     y′ = y                     

(2) x′ = x  
     y′ = y ⋅ Shx

(3) x′ = x
     y′ = Shy (x – xref) +  y                                            

(4) x′ = Shy ⋅ y 
     y′ = y ⋅ (x – xref)

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 18 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with reference to curve generation ?

I. Hermite curves are generated using the concepts of interpolation.

II. Bezier curves are generated using the concepts of approximation.

III. The Bezier curve lies entirely within the convex hull of its control points.

IV. The degree of Bezier curve does not depend on the number of control points.

(1) I, II and IV only                                            (2) II and III only
(3) I and II only                                                  (4) I, II and III only

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 19 Given the following statements :

(A) To implement Abstract Data Type, a programming language require a syntactic unit
to encapsulate type definition.

(B) To implement ADT, a programming language requires some primitive operations
that are built in the language processor.

(C) C++, Ada, Java 5.0, C#2005 provide support for parameterised ADT.

Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) (A), (B) and (C) are false.

(2) (A) and (B) are true; (C) is false.

(3) (A) is true; (B) and (C) are false.

(4) (A), (B) and (C) are true.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 20 Match the following types of variables with the corresponding programming languages :

(a) Static variables                                (i) Local variables in Pascal

(b) Stack dynamic                                (ii) All variables in APL

(c) Explicit heap dynamic                    (iii) Fortran 77

(d) Implicit heap dynamic                   (iv) All objects in JAVA

Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1)  (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(2)  (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(3)  (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4)  (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

Answer:: (3)


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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

Q:: 1 Which of the following is a sequential circuit ?

(1) Multiplexer                          (2) Decoder

(3) Counter                                (4) Full adder


Answer:: (3)


Q:: 2 8085 microprocessor has _____ hardware interrupts.

(1) 2                                           (2) 3

(3) 4                                           (4) 5

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 3 Which of the following in 8085 microprocessor performs

         HL = HL + DE ?

(1) DAD D                                 (2) DAD H

(3) DAD B                                 (4) DAD SP

Answer:: (A)

Q:: 4 The register that stores all interrupt requests is :

(1) Interrupt mask register        (2) Interrupt service register

(3) Interrupt request register     (4) Status register

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 5 The _____ addressing mode is similar to register indirect addressing mode, except that an
offset is added to the contents of the register. The offset and register are specified in the
instruction.

(1) Base indexed                        (2) Base indexed plus displacement

(3) Indexed                                (4) Displacement

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 6 In _____ method, the word is written to the block in both the cache and main memory, in
parallel.

(1) Write through                      (2) Write back

(3) Write protected                    (4) Direct mapping

Answer:: (1)

Q:: 7 Which of the following statements concerning Object-Oriented databases is FALSE ?

(1) Objects in an object-oriented database contain not only data but also methods for
processing the data.

(2) Object-oriented databases store computational instructions in the same place as the
data.

(3) Object-oriented databases are more adapt at handling structured (analytical) data
than relational databases.

(4) Object-oriented databases store more types of data than relational databases and
access that data faster.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 8 In distributed databases, location transparency allows for database users, programmers and
administrators to treat the data as if it is at one location. A SQL query with location
transparency needs to specify :

(1) Inheritances                     (2) Fragments

(3) Locations                         (4) Local formats

Q::9 Consider the relations R(A, B) and S(B, C) and the following four relational algebra
queries over R and S :

I. ΠA, B (R S)

II. R ΠB(S)

III. R ∩ (ΠA(R) × ΠB(S))

IV. ΠA,R.B (R × S) where R⋅B refers to the column B in table R.

One can determine that :

(1) I, III and IV are the same query.                (2) II, III and IV are the same query.

(3) I, II and IV are the same query.                  (4) I, II and III are the same query.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 10 Which of the following statements is TRUE ?

D1 : The decomposition of the schema R(A, B, C) into R1(A, B) and R2 (A, C) is always
lossless.

D2 : The decomposition of the schema R(A, B, C, D, E) having AD → B, C → DE,
B → AE and AE → C, into R1 (A, B, D) and R2 (A, C, D, E) is lossless.

(1) Both D1 and D2                                 (2) Neither D1 nor D2

(3) Only D1                                             (4) Only D2

Answer:: (4)



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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 2 QUESTIONS

Q::41. If S1 is total number of modules defined in the program architecture, S3 is the number of modules whose correct function depends on prior processing then the number of modules not dependent on prior processing is :

(1) 1 +S3/S1

(2) 1 –S3/S1

(3) 1 +S1/S3

(4) 1 –S1/S3

Answer::(2)

Q::42. The ________ model is preferred for software development when the requirements are not clear.

(1) Rapid Application Development

(2) Rational Unified Process

(3) Evolutionary Model

(4) Waterfall Model

Answer::(3)

Q::43. Which of the following is not included in waterfall model ?

(1) Requirement analysis                          (2) Risk analysis
(3) Design                                                 (4) Coding

Answer::(2)

Q::44.The cyclomatic complexity of a flow graph V(G), in terms of predicate nodes is :

(1) P + 1                               (2) P – 1
(3) P – 2                               (4) P + 2

Answer::(1)

Where P is number of predicate nodes in flow graph V(G).

Q::45. The extent to which a software tolerates the unexpected problems, is termed as :

(1) Accuracy                            (2) Reliability
(3) Correctness                        (4) Robustness

Answer::(4)

Q::46. An attacker sits between customer and Banker, and captures the information from the customer and retransmits to the banker by altering the information. This attack is called as
______.

(1) Masquerade Attack

(2) Replay Attack

(3) Passive Attack

(4) Denial of Service Attack

Answer::(2)

Q::47. Consider the following two statements :

(A) Business intelligence and Data warehousing is used for forecasting and Data mining.

(B) Business intelligence and Data warehousing is used for analysis of large volumes of sales data.

Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(3) (A) is false, (B) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.


Answer::(2)

Q::48. Pipelining improves performance by :

(1) decreasing instruction latency

(2) eliminating data hazards

(3) exploiting instruction level parallelism

(4) decreasing the cache miss rate

Answer::(3)

Q::49. Consider the following two statements :

(A) Data scrubling is a process to upgrade the quality of data, before it is moved into Data warehouse.

(B) Data scrubling is a process of rejecting data from data warehouse to create indexes.

Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(2) (A) is false, (B) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are true.

Answer::(1)

Q::50. Given the following statements :

(A) Strategic value of data mining is timestamping.

(B) Information collection is an expensive process in building an expert system.

Which of the following options is correct ?

(1) Both (A) and (B) are false.

(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(3) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(4) (A) is false, (B) is true.

Answer::(2)

                                                              
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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 2 QUESTIONS

Q::31.The number of strings of length 4 that are generated by the regular expression (0|∈)1+2* (3|∈), where | is an alternation character, {+, *} are quantification characters, and ∈ is the null string, is :

(1) 08                        (2) 10
(3) 11                        (4) 12

Answer::(4)

Q::32.The content of the accumulator after the execution of the following 8085 assembly language program, is :

MVI A, 42H
MVI B, 05H
UGC: ADD B
DCR B
JNZ UGC
ADI 25H
HLT

(1) 82 H                    (2) 78 H
(3) 76 H                    (4) 47 H

Answer::(3)

For Explanation Visit::
http://cbsenetmaterial.blogspot.in/2016/12/ugc-net-computer-science-july-2016_74.html

Q::33. In _______, the bodies of the two loops are merged together to form a single loop provided that they do not make any references to each other.

(1) Loop unrolling                       (2) Strength reduction
(3) Loop concatenation                (4) Loop jamming

Answer::(4)

Q::34. Which of the following is not typically a benefit of dynamic linking ?

I. Reduction in overall program execution time.

II. Reduction in overall space consumption in memory.

III. Reduction in overall space consumption on disk.

IV. Reduction in the cost of software updates.

(1) I and IV                             (2) I only
(3) II and III                           (4) IV only

Answer::(2)

Q::35. Which of the following is FALSE ?

(1) The grammar S → a Sb |bSa|SS|∈, where S is the only non-terminal symbol and ∈ is the null string, is ambiguous.

(2) SLR is powerful than LALR.

(3) An LL(1) parser is a top-down parser.

(4) YACC tool is an LALR(1) parser generator.

Answer::(2)

Q::36. Consider the reference string
                       
                       0 1 2 3 0 1 4 0 1 2 3 4

If FIFO page replacement algorithm is used, then the number of page faults with three page frames and four page frames are _______ and ______ respectively.

(1) 10, 9                                           (2) 9, 9
(3) 10, 10                                         (4) 9, 10

Answer::(4)

Q::37. Suppose there are four processes in execution with 12 instances of a Resource R in a system. The maximum need of each process and current allocation are given below :
Process Max.              Need Current              Allocation
         P1                           8                                 3
         P2                           9                                 4
         P3                           5                                 2
         P4                           3                                 1

With reference to current allocation, is system safe ? If so, what is the safe sequence ?

(1) No                                              (2) Yes, P1 P2 P3 P4
(3) Yes, P4 P3 P1 P2                           (4) Yes, P2 P1 P3 P4

Answer::(3)

Q::38. If the Disk head is located initially at track 32, find the number of disk moves required with FCFS scheduling criteria if the disk queue of I/O blocks requests are :
                        98, 37, 14, 124, 65, 67

(1) 320                                                 (2) 322
(3) 321                                                 (4) 319

Answer::(3)

Q::39. In UNIX, _________ creates three subdirectories : ‘PIS’ and two subdirectories ‘progs’ and ‘data’ from just created subdirectory ‘PIS’.

(1) mkdir PIS/progs PIS/data PIS

(2) mkdir PIS progs data

(3) mkdir PIS PIS/progs PIS/data

(4) mkdir PIS/progs data

Answer::(3)

Q::40. A scheduling Algorithm assigns priority proportional to the waiting time of a process. Every process starts with priority zero (lowest priority). The scheduler reevaluates the
process priority for every ‘T’ time units and decides next process to be scheduled. If the
process have no I/O operations and all arrive at time zero, then the scheduler implements
_________ criteria.

(1) Priority scheduling

(2) Round Robin Scheduling

(3) Shortest Job First

(4) FCFS

Answer::(2)

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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 2 QUESTIONS

Q::21. Consider the following binary search tree :

 If we remove the root node, which of the node from the left subtree will be the new root ?

(1) 11                               (2) 12

(3) 13                               (4) 16

Answer:: (4)

Q::22. Consider the following operations performed on a stack of size 5 : Push (a); Pop() ; Push(b); Push(c); Pop(); Push(d); Pop();Pop(); Push (e)

Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Underflow occurs

(2) Stack operations are performed smoothly

(3) Overflow occurs

(4) None of the above

Answer:: (2)

Q::23. Suppose you are given a binary tree with n nodes, such that each node has exactly either zero or two children. The maximum height of the tree will be

 (1)n/2–1                          (2)n/2+ 1

 (3) (n – 1)/2                    (4) (n + 1)/2

Answer::(3)

Q::24. Which of the following is not an inherent application of stack ?

(1) Implementation of recursion

(2) Evaluation of a postfix expression

(3) Job scheduling

(4) Reverse a string

Answer::(3)

Q::25. In how many ways can the string

                            A ∩ B – A ∩ B – A

 be fully parenthesized to yield an infix expression ?

(1) 15                  (2) 14

(3) 13                  (4) 12

Answer::(2)

Q::26. A multiplexer combines four 100-Kbps channels using a time slot of 2 bits. What is the bit rate ?

(1) 100 Kbps                    (2) 200 Kbps

(3) 400 Kbps                    (4) 1000 Kbps

Answer::(3)

Q::27. In a fully-connected mesh network with 10 computers, total ______ number of cables are required and ______ number of ports are required for each device.

(1) 40, 9                    (2) 45, 10

(3) 45, 9                    (4) 50, 10

Answer::(3)

Q::28. In TCP/IP Reference model, the job of _______ layer is to permit hosts to inject packets into any network and travel them independently to the destination.

(1) Physical                      (2) Transport

(3) Application                 (4) Host-to-network

Answer:: Marks to All

Q::29. If there are N people in the world and are using secret key encryption/decryption for privacy purpose, then number of secret keys required will be :

(1) N                                  (2) (N – 1)

(3) N(N – 1)/2                     (4) N(N + 1)/2

Answer::(3)

Q::30. Optical fiber uses reflection to guide light through a channel, in which angle of incidence is ________ the critical angle.

(1) equal to                               (2) less than

(3) greater than                        (4) less than or equal to

Answer::(3)

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